3rd and 4th passages for Signal thread (6/12/25)

Steve Chiara
MA in Christian Apologetics, Biola University

Hello Brian and Rob,

In this post, I'll first respond to Brian's claim that homologeō is used in both passages I cited (Philippians 2:11 and Romans 10:9).  Then I'll offer what I, at least, have found to be a satisfactory explanation to what's going on in Matthew 25:46 (I hope you'll find it reasonable). Third, I'll address the question as to whether God actually hides His face from people or is there something else going on in Isaiah 59:2.  Finally, I'll introduce the third and fourth passages in support of apokatastasis: 1 Timothy 4:10 and 1 John 2:2 (although they're from two different authors, they're very similar so I thought I'd pair them together).

Whether exomologeō or homologeō is used in Philippians 2:11 doesn't matter too much since the argument is valid either way.  That said, if exomologeō is used, the point for apokatastasis would be, a fortiori, all the stronger.  But if I may inquire Brian, what source are you using to check the Greek?  I have cited my source: blueletterbible.org, and as I mentioned earlier, they are in agreement with ECT as can be seen from their statement of faith: 


So when I cite them, it should be considered reliable since I'm using them as an antagonistic authority.  They have an app which is excellent.  If you don't have it already I highly recommend it.

Regarding Matthew 25:46, see my comments at time stamp 1 hour 24 minutes at the link below:

http://stevespodcastnotes.blogspot.com/2023/10/lord-of-spirits-what-in-tarnation.html

(That was my response to a podcast against apokatastasis by two Eastern Orthodox priests.)

Moving on... you mentioned Isaiah 59:2, "but your iniquities have made a separation between you and your God, and your sins have hidden his face from you so that he does not hear." 

I believe what is going on here is that God never actually moves His presence or actively hides His face from sinners, but sinners simply become less and less aware of His presence the more they engage in sin.  I say that because of verse 1, "Behold, the LORD'S hand is not shortened, that it cannot save, or his ear dull, that it cannot hear."

So from the sinners perspective the result is the same... a separation from God.  But again it is because the sinner turned from God, not God from the sinner.  Remember, Adam and Eve hid from God while God was still seeking them out.

This idea is expressed many times in different ways throughout the Bible.  In 2 Kings 6, Elisha's servant's eyes were opened to see God's angels surrounding the camp.  But the angels didn't suddenly come near when the servants eyes were opened, they were already there the whole time, the servant just wasn't aware of it.  Jesus healed the sight of many people and when he did he didn't create a new world for them, the world was already there the whole time... they just couldn't see it.  Spiritual blindness is a metaphor that is used a multitude of times in the Bible and expresses the exact same idea.

Moreover in Colossians 1:21 we see, "Once you were alienated from God and were enemies in your minds because of your evil behavior" (NIV).

"...enemies in your minds."  We considered God as enemy (in our minds), but He considered us as friends. See how Jesus relates to Judas as He's being betrayed in Matthew 26:50, "Friend, do what you came for."

Let's look at another passage that people often use as an example of when the Father supposedly "hid His face."  Mark 15:34, "My God, my God why have you forsaken me?"

At a surface level, it does appear that the Father had indeed turned His face away from the Son.  The sins of all the world had been placed on Jesus at that moment and we "know" that the Father cannot abide sin (Habakkuk 1:13) so it was at that one moment in all of eternity, that the Son was forsaken by the Father and turned His face away.  Well that's one theory...

Here's an alternative view: We know that in Jesus' time there were no chapter and verse divisions, so the way a rabbi would refer to a Psalm, for example, would be to recite the first line.  In this case, Jesus was citing Psalm 22, where we read (among other things), "they pierced my hands and my feet... they cast lots for my clothing" etc.  Later in verse 24 we read, regarding the Father towards the Son, "...He has NOT hidden His face from him, but has heard when he cried to Him."  OOPS!  That kinda just wrecks one of my favorite worship songs (which is great in every way except for that one line):

How Deep the Father's Love for Us:

The Father never abandoned or turned His face away from the Son even for one second.  Here's what Jesus says about the hour of His crucifixion in John 16:32, "Behold, the hour is coming, indeed it has come, when you will be scattered, each to his own home, and will leave me alone. Yet I am not alone, for the Father IS with me."

So, as a result of mankind's sin, Jesus' view of the Father's face was obscured and He may not have been able to sense His presence, but that was a problem of perception, NOT reality.  

The same is true when we sin.  We cannot see the Father's face, not because He has hidden it from us, certainly not because He is too holy to be in the presence of sin, but because it blinds us to His face and presence.

And as far as your accounting analogy goes, there is some biblical precedent for it, but by far and away the overriding analogy is that of familial relationship.  That of an adoring father and his wayward children, or a loving husband and his unfaithful wife, or even as a protective hen and her wandering chicks.  Please catch the heart of the message of the gospel.  

It's about love, not accounting or reconciling books or balancing scales.

As someone said (I can't find the attribution): "God will never do as a judge [or accountant] what he won't first do as a Father."

In any case, I think it would be good at this time to introduce the third and fourth passages in support of apokatastasis (I've included the first two for reference):

1- Matthew 19:26
2- Philippians 2:9-11 in combination with Romans 10:9
3- 1 Timothy 4:10- "For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of ALL people, especially of those who believe."

In what sense is God the savior of people who are never saved? If Paul did not intend what it clearly seems to say, then it is hard to understand what his intention was. After all, it says "especially," not "exclusively." God is the savior of all of humanity, not just current believers. When they finally put their trust in Jesus, all will participate in salvation.

4. 1 John 2:2 "He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world."

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